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Ex girlfriend claiming beneficial interest

  • Cantbelieveit
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10 Sep 19 #509587 by Cantbelieveit
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Hi,
To cut it short, I bought my property in my name and I was always open that I intended to keep it this way so that I had something to pass onto my children. My girlfriend moved in on the same day as me and agreed that she wouldn't have any claim on the property.
I did not get a formal cohabitation agreement when purchasing my house.
My ex did not pay towards the deposit, she did not pay towards the mortgage and she did not pay towards any bills while living in the property.
The only thing she did was buy food 50% of the time.
She is now claiming that I always said she'd have half and is claiming beneficial interest and demanding 50% of my equity.
As she has never contributed financially, does she have any beneficial interest?
Thanks for the help.....

  • hadenoughnow
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10 Sep 19 #509589 by hadenoughnow
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How long have you lived together and are there any children involved?

From what you say and assuming you have a clear paper trail, it would appear unlikely that she would have a strong claim. However in property law cases, it is always best to seek the advice of a suitably qualified solicitor. Unlike in divorce finances, the loser pays all the costs in property cases. She should also seek legal advice.

Hadenoughnow

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10 Sep 19 #509590 by Cantbelieveit
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Hi,
We lived together for 2 years and 9 months and I can prove with my bank statements that I have paid everything. There are no children involved.
I have a message from 3 weeks prior to moving in where she says about paying solicitors fees for my house for me to leave to my kids.
I am disputing the claim but it's difficult for either of us to prove and I am worried about court costs if it goes to court.

  • WYSPECIAL
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11 Sep 19 #509594 by WYSPECIAL
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If it's all in your name she won't have a very strong claim after such a short period of time with no children.

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11 Sep 19 #509596 by Cantbelieveit
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Ok, that's good news for me.
Thanks for your reply

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11 Sep 19 #509597 by Cantbelieveit
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Just a quick question, doesn't she have to contribute towards either the deposit, mortgage or bills? Or be contributing in a detrimental way to herself?
It just seems unfair?

  • .Charles
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11 Sep 19 #509598 by .Charles
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It's often easier to pay some money to get rid of the nuisance rather than litigate as that can be very expensive.

The starting point is the title to the property. If it's in your sole name that is a clear indication that the property is for your benefit alone.

You then have evidence of discharging the mortgage. If your ex has evidence of transferring money to you that will have to be countered but a contribution in lieu of rent is perfectly reasonable. She was, after all, a lodger.

Charles

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