My partner is trying to claim Benefical Interest on the property we have shared together for 20 years, however she owns outright a property that she bought during the period of our relationship which she rents out.
We are NOT MARRIED and the house we share together was paid for (by me) long before she moved in.
I understand that even though she has only contributed to the household bills, that she may be able to claim Beneficial Interest on MY property.
So if she is able to do this on my property, would i be able to make a claim on her rental property?
She could make a claim, of course, but I doubt whether it would succeed. Generally contributions to household expenses will not be enough in themselves to establish a beneficial interest.
She might have a better case if she made contributions towards the mortgage.
As to the last paragraph, the answer, almost certainly, is no.
LMM