Hello all and thanks for taking the time to read this rather large post.
My friend had a partner and they were never married or civil partnership.
He owns two houses which are both in his name. His ex partner never contributed to the deposits or even mortgage payments. During their relationship, she only had part time jobs here and there. From a 15 year relationship, she probably worked a total of 6 months. She had no contribution to the houses in any way e.g Improvements.
They had two children together and of course his only priority is the kids. So after they split up, he allowed her to be a tenant in one of the houses for a subsidised rent rate to ensure the kids had a nice place to live.
Basically, his ex partner is now demanding the following:
The house she is in at the moment (to take on the mortgage)
To sell my friends house, pay off the mortgage, redemption fees and the money left to give her half.
My friend to pay half of her student loans.
I read that since my friend is the owner of the houses and are in his name only, she has is basically on the back foot and has to prove contribution. He's a nice guy so has been amicable but these demands are crazy in my mind.
Finally, during their relationship, family members from both sides loaned money to them. Now his ex is stating she is not prepared to pay anybody back and the money was gifted. Will these family members need to sign their financial agreement? What if the family members are not prepared to sign unless the agreement states the money is paid back?
Finally, the ex will not sign the child access agreement until my friend signs the financial agreement. I class this as blackmail but of course he will be seeking legal advice.
I just wondered if anybody has similiar experiences.