Hi, it’s a complex one so I’ll break it down as easily as I can.
My husband jointly owns the family home with his ex, they were unmarried.
She put in £30k originally and they have a legal doc covering this (it will be reaped to her on sale of property)
House now has a lot of equity in it - around £65k
Husband paid the monthly mortgage in lieu of child maintanence as it was more money and he was happy to ensure the kids stayed in the family home and were looked after. Difference of around £200 extra a month, he has paid the mortgage directly himself with this agreement in place for nearly 5 years now.
Mortgage only has 1.5 years left and his ex suddenly decided she wanted to take the mortgage over, we have not agreed to this as the figure offered to buy him out was £30k less than he would have been owed.
Now she wants to sell, which we are in agreeable with and starting to get valuations etc.
Now we have received a claim for
child maintenance and she has claimed he never sees the children (like ever) and that he has no other children. Both untrue and obviously we have plenty of evidence to prove this we will separately dispute this claim.
My questions falls around the mortgage payments, they are both jointly responsible for but clearly we can’t afford to pay out £450 a month
child maintenance (which is what he should actually be due) plus £600 mortgage on a property he doesn’t reside in.
It will all be easier when they sell, but that may take months.
I am on maternity leave so can’t contribute to helping with our mortgage or his other one. So we are screwed financially if we have to upkeep 2 mortgages, maternity leave and maintenance while this gets sorted out.
My question is, can we stop paying the mortgage for the other property in any legal way? I’m at a loss as to what to do. Clearly we want to make sure it’s fair across the board and at the moment it doesn’t seem so.
Thanks for any guidance.