we already have a signed and sealed court order that states:
"To pay the applicant an annual contribution towards the costs of holidays for the child until 31st dec 2025 (to include only all holidays booked, paid for and taken before that date) of no more than £x per annum upon production of booking confirmation"
There is more blurb regarding what constitutes a holiday etc. but the above is the wording in question.
We are having a few difficulties upon agreeing on the interpretation of the wording.
any feedback would be most welcome.
e.g. if a holiday was booked in 2016 for a holiday to be taken in 2017, which years allowance would the money come from?
If anyone responds in which their answer is based upon a professional response, please let me know (i.e. if you happen to be a solicitor / mediator / work in this area of law etc).