Wonder if anyone has experience of the following or any advice.
Consent order was in 2011. My ex husband was awarded an overseas property - the value was to be confirmed. It had a loan against it and was being rented out, the long term idea was that the rent would repay the loan and he would have a mortgage free property that was wholly his. The consent order said the value for the division of assets was to include a current valuation less usual costs but did not deduct the loan against it. As it stands after all the calculations my ex should have paid me a small lump sum. This didn't happen for various reasons. However, this is not the issue. My ex is now seeking to have the loan deducted which makes the property worth a lot less so in final calculations he is saying I have to pay him 55K. Due to his mismanagement of the property he did have to sell it quickly and there was still a big loan against it which he had to pay back leaving him with far less than he anticipated.
If this is true, I will be wiped out. Can the consent order be changed after all this time.
On top of this I have not received a penny in child maintenance
all these years so I can't believe I might now have to pay him!
Any thoughts or advice will be gratefully received.
Can I ask Charles as you seem very knowledgable !
If since your agreed signed consent order one party applies to reduce the payment due to another child with a new partner so though an application to vary an order. Would any inheritance to the other party put them at a disadvantage?