I owned a business for the last 30 years until my business partner and I sold it last year. The company was started 12 years before I got married. There is a substantial amount of money involved. Am I right in thinking it was a non-marital asset? I want to be fair to my wife in the divorce but she is claiming half of everything even my pension. If the proceeds of the company sale are to be included, would it be possible to specify that maybe a third of it should not be included (to account for the first 12 years). The hardest work was done in that period building the business up - the longest days/hours etc. We have been married 19 years.
This is a long marriage so everything goes into the pot. Needs will be considered first. This is need for housing and income, now and on the future. Arguments about contributions may be advanced if there is more than enough in the pot to meet needs. Whether or not they will succeed is another matter.