- Posts: 8
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"Normally"? No. A 50/50 split is often quoted as being the starting point if there are no other factors involved, but there ARE other factors in almost every case. Disparity in earning. Length of marriage. Children. Pension. Mortgage capacity. Other assets/debts. All of these factors change the 50/50 division.
When a value has been set on the house I understand that normally there will be a 50/50 settlement on this
You can agree on whatever arrangement you like. But legally she will get nowhere. House contents are only "worth" their second-hand value and it is not worth the cost of taking you to court for this. So you could simply say no you can''t have any contents they are all mine now. But coming to an amicable agreement is preferable, of course!
Can my wife turn round and say I want X amount for the contents of the house or can I say to her take what you like up to the value of the figure that has been agreed rather than pay out cash as long as she leaves all the fittings.