my partner went to court and came to an agreement with his wife to pay her a certain figure so long as he could get a mortgage for it. when he applied for it the mortgage was denied. he then said he would put the house on the market and if it sold they would have to come to another agreement, in other words, rather than pay her the figure agreed to at court, she would have to take a 50/50 split on the house. she agreed and now he has been sent a new Consent Order to sign. however he does not know if he has to sign it as he was thinking that if his credit rating comes back up he will then be able to get a mortgage and pay her off. he did say in his correspondence with her solicitor that it was "if" the house sells that they would need to make a new agreement. I think he was thinking whichever he was able to do first ie either sell the house or get a mortgage he would be prepared to do. does he have to sign a consent order now or can he leave it open ended?
He does not have to sign anything unless directed to do so by a court. A Consent Order is an order made by consent. If he doesn''t agree to the terms then all he has to do is withhold his consent (signature).