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What are we each entitled to in our divorce settlement?

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Advice wanted

  • Thedv8
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20 Jun 21 #517028 by Thedv8
Topic started by Thedv8
Hi all,

I am seeking some advice about my current situation, at the moment myself and my wife are separated and have been so since December last year. Our intention is to get a divorce ideally for me it would be under the grounds of unreasonable behaviour from her side for the following reasons;

lack of intimacy - had not made love in 2.5 years neither of us cheated

she describes her sexuality as asexual and will likely say that I knew this when we got together although I do not believe this to be the case I cannot be certain.

can I divorce her on the grounds above? How would the process work and how much would it cost.


thank you.

  • rubytuesday
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22 Jun 21 #517056 by rubytuesday
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You couldn't use her sexuality as a sole reason for divorce, but you could use lack of intimacy as one of the 5 or 6 examples of (unreasonable) behaviour for a petition. As you haven't been separated for 2 years or more, then you can't use separation as your reason for divorce, it would need to be behaviour - unless you are both willing to wait to be separated for 2 full years, and then use that - essentially it would be a no-fault divorce.

The new divorce laws are due to introduced in April next year - these do away with the need to blame one party for the breakdown, and introduce no-fault divorce without a lengthy waiting period. You could wait until these are in place if you didn't want to use behaviour.

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