Hope you are all enjoying the beautiful sunshine and feeling uplifted.
I have a question if anyone can kindly answer: During divorce, when huge sum as been withdrawn, loans taken, credit cards used, mortgages changed........does the other party have to be part of these borrowings made without permission ?
I think it would depend.. A loan or credit card would be applied for singly wouldn't 'it.
For a mortgage, it would depend whether the property/mortgage is in joint names. If it's only in one party's name then the other party wouldn't need to sign? If both parties are on the mortgage, then both parties would need to agree to any amendment, AFAIK.