hello all...

Morning: sadly I posted in wrong section yesterday, so going to have to write my quick synopsis of an introduction again! Never mind! Well, for several months now, I have been a silent reader and have assimilated a lot of legal knowledge from this site: thank you all! And what a wonderful lot of people you are - to give one''s time and effort so freely and so helpfully! I hope to be able to return the favour one of these days, when I am feeling a little stronger and a little bit further down the line!

No doubt I will be on here for a long time - mine is a bit of a complicated case to say the least! I am financially obliged to be a a LIP, so going to be in for a rough ride, I should think!

Still, instead of pontificating for what has been years now, at least I finally decided to join up yesterday - shame I posted my history in wrong place! But anyway, my first marriage was and is deemed void as it fulfills the criteria, as opposed to voidable. Suffice to say he was not legally allowed to marry again, the last word is very operative there, so you may know what I am refering to. I really can''t say too much, for he hacks into my PC from time to time, which is actually more upsetting than the DV that occured. Anyway -stupidly I then married him again, some years later ( legally this time!) He left soon after, been seperated since - I returned to pre-marital home which is in my sole name. Now he wants some of the equity: I think not!

Because I am religious, I am going for a Judicial Seperation, even though I know I am doing myeslf a disfavour in that pension orders can''t be attached, but this is my only option as opposed to a divorce. And I shall never marry again, so this is the way it has to be, for me.

Can any nice person on here, please advise if one has to go through the mediation prior to submitting forms for a JS. There is no question that he and I would ever be able to mediate, even though I can see how protocol requires couples to try these days. If I have to get a FM1, I shall just have to rely on one of the reasons why they will agree mediation not appropriate in my case: having said that, sadly, becuse we have been parted for a long time, the last incidence of DV ( domestic violence) was over the 12 month period they cite, so no idea what I am going to do if getting an FM1 form does prove necessary, which is why I was
just hoping that if I proceed with a JS instead of a divorce, would that
negate the need to get a FM1? That''s really my question, if anyone knows? Thanks in advance and this is a brilliant site! Take care all, thanks.

Hello Patm, Welcome to Wikivorce.

A question, rather than an answer.
Does your husband share your religious convictions? If he does not, has he agreed to a judicial separation? What if he petitions for divorce?

Thanks for email. Only just starting out on this rough old journey, and just getting things prepared, like sorting out my form E already so no last minute rush. I think I have said enough about the sort of man who commits the crime of bigamy to assure you that of course, no moral code at all, let alone religious. And it is a crime. And what if he divorces me, you ask? He won''t - for as long as we are married, he knows he is my next of kin, with failing physical health and I am worth a few bob,though only on paper. Classic case of paper-rich, cash-poor. I can''t even remortage to help pay for legal costs, hence LIP''ing it. Going to be tough, but sometimes doing something is better than doing nothing! I may in some perverse way find doing it myself will be satisfying.

I am the wronged party here, btw and appreciate I don''t fit the usual profile: we had no kids, we are both quite old, and both of us had pre-marital assets. And I am keeping my house: the man will not get a penny out of me!

Hope your doing ok and thanks for the reply.