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Divorce after 29 years

  • Lindy Loo
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07 Oct 12 #359661 by Lindy Loo
Topic started by Lindy Loo
I have four children and live in the family home after being left last March when my husband moved in with a ''work colleague''. They are now a couple. Had a gut feeling since last year he was cheating. I am divorcing him for abandonment.
This all happened 10 days after my spinal surgery so I was at my lowest point, stuck indoors unable to drive. I am still recovering and am now facing spinal fusion. He has just had a valuation done by his choice of agent. I don''t have to move until the youngest has finished full time education.
They under valued it by over £150,000.00 from the previous valuation done 2 months ago.
Is this allowed? Can he influence the agent to undervalue the house?
Don''t want to move but feel selling would enable me to move forward. I never thought I would be in this position, I am so hurt by his actions and cruelty.
The children have been amazing and they keep me going tbh.
Anybody out there in a similar position? What would you advise?
Lindyloo x

  • missguided
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07 Oct 12 #359662 by missguided
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There should really be 3 different valuations done (or so we were told). I suggest you arrange 3 of your own to come round!

  • sim5355
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07 Oct 12 #359668 by sim5355
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hi! i agree with missguided get another two valuations your self and yes they can influence the agents take the three and give yourself a average.xx

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07 Oct 12 #359675 by Lindy Loo
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Thanks, yep thought that would be my first job tomorrow morning I''ll get three in.
Will not be moving asap like I initially wanted to as that plays into hands. Have to be stronger to keep up with the scheming, he thinks he''s very clever. He keeps saying he wants the best for us, it''s all lies, typical salesman.
I have been at rock bottom for long enough, it''s time to fight back.

  • LittleMrMike
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07 Oct 12 #359676 by LittleMrMike
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If I may so request, what do you need the valuation for ?

There can be one of two reasons. Either the property is going to be sold, or else it is contemplated that one of the former spouses will buy out the other.

Where the property is to be sold, then ideally the Court order which authorises this should specify an initial asking price. In normal cases, I guess this would be a wee bit above the valuation, in just the same way that a private seller would. It may be necessary to go back to Court for Directions if it is clear the asking price is excessive.

But where the property is going to be bought by one spouse or the other it is essential that there should be a truly independent valuation, which will bind both parties.

May I ask, is there a Court order here ? And if there is, what does it say ?

LMM

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