Shortly after getting married my wife gave up a reasonably paid job to become self employed / do some study. We are now getting divorced after just over 2 years of marriage and because my earnings are significantly more than hers it seems like I am going to be hit rather hard. Is the court at all interested in what the other party "could" be earning or simply what they “are” earning? Clearly the decision for her to embark on a new career was one that I supported at the time but it seems unreasonable for me to have to continue to fund it. There are no children and no reason why she couldn’t be earning substantially more than she is.
Any ideas on what is called as resonable ? OHs has just made a proposal to Ex , he put down expected income at 400 pounds pcm , they have two kids 14 and 10, she rejected proposal saying he had overstated her income ?? Before she had kids she a quite high position in the civil service.