Hello everyone,
I'm new here and apologise if I am rehashing old material. I did read one thread on selling a house and then renting it back from a company and know the views were negative. However, I still cannot keep from wondering if it might be applicable in my circumstances. Apologies also for the length of this message, please feel free to ignore.
I am divorcing after a 10-year marriage. I had bought my house and also put several thousands into improvements before I met him. I also put all my inheritance into the house and only had £7000 outstanding on the mortgage when I met him, a sum which has stayed constant since because I have an interest-only mortgage. I have security issues due to past history, so have always concentrated on saving for the future. It has been even more important to have a financial cushion since I left employment to do freelance work.
My ex is a wastrel, who never bothers to save and spends his money on flash cars and other stuff with which he can act the poser he is. The net result is that I have a house worth £120,000 and also £80,000 capital, while he has little or nothing in assets. He is in rented accommodation, while I am in a house with minimal mortgage fees (about £40 per month. Against that, he earns 1.5-2 times as much as me and, being fully employed has employer pension contribution, sick pay, bonuses etc, whereas if I was unable to work for any time due to illness, I would get nothing and would still need to pay fixed house and business outgoings and feed myself, so would need to dip into my capital.
He has said he is going for half my assets and will spin out the court proceedings so I lose the maximum in legal fees as well.
So, as I see it:
If I sell my house on a rent-back basis
1. I will only get 80% or less of the market value, however, this will diminish the size of the assets against which he is claiming.
2. There will be a fixed sum obtained from the sale of the house to factor into the equation rather than an inflated valuation from an estate agent.
3. Until a settlement is reached, all the capital I receive will be mine, and the interest gained will cover a significant part of the rent.
4. Since I will be paying a market-based rent instead of tiny mortgage repayments, my outgoings will become similar to his, but with a much smaller income coming in. Presumably this will allow some of my capital to be
offset against his higher income, as will the fact my income could vary a lot, and I do not have sick pay, guaranteed pension payments, etc.
5. The house is in a poor condition, but I will have its essential maintenance assured by the landlord (e.g. the boiler could well break down next winter since it already makes large banging sounds, the roof has loose tiles and might start to leak).
6. Once a settlement has been achieved, I will hopefully have some of the capital left to put into a new house, and could then raise a mortgage for the additional sum needed.
7. The move would not entail any agent's fees for selling my house, nor any expenses for cosmetic redecoration, so I would save about £4000, as well as the 5-10% (£6000-12000)that I would probably lose by being made an offer below the asking price.
8. I would be able to buy a house without being involved in a chain myself, and thus might be able to get a more favourable price. Also, I would not have any delays in selling a house.
9. I could continue living in my current house until I was ready to move
10. I would not have to worry about remortgaging to give him his blood money if the settlement went against me. Thus, I would have no mortgage set-up fees, nor be faced with the higher rates that I would be offered given that I am self-employed and would probably need a self-cert arrangement.
Thoughts anyone?