This forum saved my sanity when going through the divorce so i''m hoping you can help me with some advise. My fella is getting divorced. He has a house with no mortgage as well as the marital home. his wife wants him to pay off half the mortgage of the marital home and give her £6k because when they were married she paid for the holiday and xmas costs. he cant afford to do this as he''s self employed and earns very little. i suggested if he went to court the court would make him pay the mortgage but not make him pay the £6k and he may be entitled to claim for half the house contents. Also she gets made redundant soon. Q1 is she entitled to the £6k and Q2 is he entitled to the redundancy money?
I think the experts on here would need more information about ages, children, income, future earning potential, pensions and other assets before being able to give advice.
I would think that both houses would be ''put into the pot'' for sharing, depending on how long they had been married. If so, then what his wife is asking for doesn''t sound unreasonable. Unless there are valuable collections of antiques etc. then the house contents would be worth very little in the grand scheme of things. I believe that the Court would look at parity in housing each of them in an appropriately sized property, so if your fella is housed in a mortgage free property then that is a significant factor.
I think that sounds fair enough. i''m just not sure she''s entitled to £6k for no reason. The expenses she wants him to pay for came from the joint account which he paid into as well as she did. In fact he was over paying the mortgage into the mortgage account and she was withdrawing the over payment to the tune of £15k and using it for clothes, holidays and xmas. He didnt realise she was doing this.
i think if the court told him he only had to pay off half the mortgage then that would seem fair. His daughter is at uni and his son is about to leave school when he finishes his a levels and then go to uni himself