Ex has been in a long term relationship since October 2018 and is now living with the new partner for 4 months+ - previously lived with parents.
The new partner is very well off and the Ex has attempted to keep the new living arrangements out of the courts and argues that despite being the higher earner they have a greater need for a higher sum to house themselves.
How are housing needs affected when the wife and husband both live with new partners, one remaining in the marital home with a new partner - marital home to sell - and the other living with a long term partner in the long term partner's property?
How are housing needs look at when there is only a small amount of equity and neither party can use any share of the equity to purchase a property?
Hard to know what's happening when the post is so cryptic but it looks like one party is living with a new partner in the FMH? The other has left and now lives with a new partner but only for last four months?
On what basis is the house that has only been lived in for four months owned? Is the ex simply a tenant? Are they really living there or do they just stop over sometimes?
Why does either party feel there is a need to move away from 50:50 when the FMH is sold?
The FMH is to be sold.
Separation early 2017.
The ex has been in a relationship since October 2018 and within court proceedings when it was brought up they had 'no intention' of living with the new partner ever or remarrying ever.
The ex has since moved in the partner, they are living together and the ex has moved from their parent's house. The Ex's partner is very well off and covers any expenses and has done since the relationship began in October 2018.
The house is the property of the new partner.
The spilt due to assets the Ex's wishes to retain is a 45/55 spilt - however, the EX is arguing for their housing needs are not met but neither would have enough money to put a deposit on a house anyway?