My xwife and I separated in 2004, and were divorced in 2005. At that time we had no financial settlement, and she has continued to live in the FMH with myself paying the mortgage company directly.
At the end of our marriage I was in full time employment (£35K) and then had another job (£40K) and I now own a limited company and pay myself £30K and take an annual dividend of around £5-8K.
The x is expecting to get a good settlement out of my limited company (she owns no shares in the company, obviously), despite the fact that I have not actually worked for the past three months and therefore financial planning is extremely hazardous.
Is the financial settlement performed solely on my CURRENT status, or does it actually reflect the state as it was when the separation occurred?
She herself has changed from a temporary part time position to a permanent full-time position during this period - how will that be looked at by the courts?