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  • sniffercat
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06 Nov 07 #6013 by sniffercat
Topic started by sniffercat
Have a good friend at work who has a problem as follows.

Her mother married a tunisian man 16 years ago, a year after her father died.
House was bought and paid for by her mother before this marriage.
Took out loans in her name to pay off his debts which she is still paying, also paying a loan that he took out in his name.
Said husband has now left and is saying that he is entitled to a share of the house and money.
Can anyone shed any light on this as she and her mother are both worried about this.

there is roughly a twenty year age gap ( him younger)
and the marriage was british, also he has not worked much, and tried to live of state but had not paid enough stamp to claim.

  • DownButNotOut
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06 Nov 07 #6017 by DownButNotOut
Reply from DownButNotOut
You dont mention children so i assume there are none.

Unfortunately for your friend's mother i think that due to the long length of the marriage, he could well be entitled to a reasonable share of the property.

The house (especially if is where they lived together during the marriage) could well be deemed to now be a joint asset of the marriage.

The house has no doubt risen greatly in value in 16 years and during those years they were married and living together in the house...so he may be entitled to half this price increase.

Also debts accrued during the marriage (even if in his name only) could well be deemed joint debts.

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