It is hard to say without knowing more, but I think I may assume the house is held in your joint names. It is certainly possible for the Court to make an order providing for the immediate sale of the property and division of the proceeds, in which case you both get what proportion the Court specifies; but I can't see any reason why your husband's name couldn't remain on the deeds until sale.
It sometimes happens that the sale is postponed in cases where the Court feels an immediate sale is undesirable, but it feels an outright transfer would be unduly harsh on the spouse who is out of occupation. In such cases the property may continue to be held in joint names but subject to a trust ; or the house may be transferred to one spouse but the other retains a charge on the property which only becomes payable on the occurrence of certain events specified in the order, for example, re-marriage of the occupying spouse. Your solicitor would advise which of the two is more appropriate in your case.