Basically I want to try to buy out my wife's share of the marital home. I know the split comes down to a lot of factors. I have obtained a fairly large mortgage to pretty much buy out my wife's share as cash. Does the court take into account the fact that there is cash involved (and not a house sale)? I'm obviously going to incur costs arranging the finance, and she will get the benefit of not having to sell the home etc.
I guess in the normal sense if you buy something for cash you might expect a discount!! I just wondered if these sorts of buyouts are seen that way in divorce, and if they can affect the split of assets?