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Hi All,
I wanted to ask you a question from a buyers perspective. If a transfer at undervalue is undertaken between an unmarried couple breaking up, and both parties have agreed on a settlement. Would a declaration of solvency and bankruptcy check be enough to protect the buyer in the event of the seller becoming bankrupt in the future? If the seller is fully solvent and has no debt, does this mean that a trustee in bankruptcy cannot put aside a transfer in the unlikely event that the seller becomes insolvent when proven that the transfer was not performed impending a bankrupcy? I find it very confusing seeing that the buyer has little protection within the law in the case. Surely there is a law that protects the buyer in an honest transaction. Thanks