During my divorce I got a Consent Order, agreed by the ex-wife for me to receive the property as she refused to pay the mortgage.
I am now at the stage where she has received the legal paperwork to sign the house over and is refusing. This is down to the fact that I have applied for a remortgage with my current partner. She herself remarried over a year ago.
She is claiming the Consent Order says she will sign the house over to me, not me and someone else.
Does she have any valid point here or is she clearly in breach of the Consent Order and I can force the issue?
She doesnt want the property but doesnt want to make my life easy either.