My wife and I separated (not divorced) last November after 3 years of marriage ,prior to this we lived together in the house we purchased for 8 years.
There are no children involved.
It was quite amicable and she moved out.
I agreed to pay her half the equity in the house and we agreed what household goods to split, she signed over the deeds etc, all done legally by a solicitor.
I am now the sole owner of the house and my name is on the deeds.
Is my wife still entitled to claim anything on the house if I was to sell etc prior to divorce?
Yes. If you have no Consent Order then she can still make a claim. You don''t mention it in your post but I assume you did actually give her the money as promised? If so then there''s a good chance that any claim for more, would fail. You came to an agreement at the time, she would have an uphill struggle to show a court why she agreed to that deal at the time but has since changed her mind. There may be factors that make this change of mind valid (for example if she has become disabled or you have won the lottery), but in the absence of such factors, a court would most likely uphold the original agreement. But it''s best to get it signed and sealed in a consent order to avoid future claims, in case such factors do arise.