Not the answer, I wished to hear but I do think a critical point is being missed.
It does not matter who buys the property, but the point is, the value of the property is still too high. The values are to suit my ex, so that he gets his lump sum. The agents believe the price is not achievable.
The equity remaining amounts to the lump sum he is due. A little coincidental would you not say?
What you are also forgetting is, this is price manipulation. He has told me he wants it to remain on the market at the current price but if no higher offers are received by the 30th June when the price is due to fall, he will buy it. This very tactic flies in the face of the integrity of the order.
He is therefore privy to the conditions of the order and he has orchestrated the whole thing, if he was interested in purchasing the property from the outset he certainly did not express an interest before we agreed the prices he expressed.
So, by expressing an interest to purchase is like insider dealing, as third party buyers are not privy to the fact that the price will further fall at the end of June, but my ex is. Given this, I believe the integrity of the order has been compromised and more
importantly the property has been on the market for 3 years and not one
offer has been put forth. Given the facts not to mention I am in jeopardy
of losing my home, surely this would not be deemed fair in a court of law.
I would also add, my ex is not offering to buy me out at all, but to buy the property and force me out, as he knows that I will have no equity due to the fact the only equity remaining is sufficient to pay him his lump sum from the
FMH.
I have offered to buy him out at the ''true'' value of the
FMH, as it is overpriced by £10,000 according to estate agents and similar properties in the area.
Hope this makes sense. Thanks