I have done a search about this subject but it seems that only 1 thread was relevant....and 4 years old...
My father “donated” his house to me when I had cohabitated for around 3 years with my ex and our son was already born. All the paperwork was done by solicitors in France and my father made them write in the paperwork that should anything happened to me, the house would go to direct to my son, completely bypassing my partner.
Altogether we cohabitated for 8 years (property donation after 3) and then married for 12 years.
My father and his wife are currently living in the house and have the right to do so until they pass away.
I was wondering if anyone would know if I have to include this property as part of the divorce settlement.
Also, as I am not sure if he actually remembers about that property, should I decide to “keep quiet” (I have just paid him off his share of the marital house), would it come back to “haunt me” once the divorce procedure is finished (including financial part of course).
I realise this may sound a little unfair (keeping it quiet) but I have spent the past 20 years “bailing” him out on fairly regular basis, and sometimes quite a lot of money (definitely in the 4 digits amounts), and I would prefer if he had nothing to do with that house...it’s mine (I spent my small childhood in it) and my son’s.
Any help is welcome.
Yes, it was a condition that the mortgage company solicitors insisted on before they proceeded with the deed transfer etc... I paid him 10 days ago, via bank transfer so I have "proof" that I have paid him along with the solicitors letter telling me to do so.