My ex husband and I jointly own a property in Spain. In the Consent Order (dated June 2009) is was due to be sold. He refused to allow an Estate Agent to market or sell it (ex has obstructed entire divorce whole way through). Finally (this May) I got a County Court Judge to give me sold conduct of sale. Ex appealed against this and lost as he is very keen to keep the house. Despite wishing to keep the house and refusing to cooperate on selling, he allowed the house to go 3 months into arrears on the mortgage - which I have just cleared to the sum of 3,000 euros. I now wish to get the house sold ASAP via an online auction house in Spain which would clear the mortgage and there would be some left towards legal costs taxes etc.
Does anyone know whether I need the Judge to sign something to allow this auction to happen as I guarantee ex won''t sign anything at all. I have spent a fortune on solicitors and can afford not more legal representation. My Consent Order wasn''t watertight at all and my ex continues to refuse to cooperate. Although I have this Order saying I have sole conduct of sale, I would like to know exactly what powers this gives me. Anyone know