House up for sale through court order following divorce
I borrowed money and bought another property nearby I live alone in.
No buyers in 18 months for house so I asked her for rent at 50% of going rate to help with my housing costs
Ex agreed to pay me occupational rent from June 2012.
There is no written agreement !!!
She was paying via the bank and I have emails and txts from her stating she has agreed to pay as well as a document she sent to the Solicitor selling the house stating “I have agreed to pay Mr X occupational rent until completion of contracts at which time I will give vacant possession to the purchaser”
She is now saying she wont pay any more rent, she has paid in advance via bank transfer to mid November.
What can I do if she breaches are agreement …. Any advice really appreciated.
Thanks for your response WYSPECIAL, there is no mortgage so cant go that route.
I know ultimately I will need to seek legal advice but I perhaps wrongly believed we had a contract that implies she will pay me occupational rent until the completion of sale contracts in return for exclusive rights of occupation.
I would have thought changing your mind about an agreement if legally binding is not enough of a reason to breach it without perhaps potentially leaving yourself open to court action.
I guess I need to establish (a) Is our agreement legally binding (b) what options if any do I have to enforce the contract or seek compensation for the breach of the contract.