Long story short, trying to agree finances.
2 houses, have sold FMH, but stbx wants 2nd house.
However when solicitor sent me figures they had deducted a notional 3% selling cost of the 2nd house, i questioned why this was as the house wasnt being sold (stbx to retain) and if he doesnt want house i have always said i do, so no sale needed.
Is this something that has to be included, i just really dont understand when not being sold.
Also the 3% is well over cost of actual sale (current estate agent 1.25% here) plus £800 conveyancing takes it to little over 1.5%.
So there is less money in the pot due to stbx keeping not selling?
I must admit the notional costs of sale annoyed and confused me too, it can seem very unfair if a property is not actually going to be sold. But this is standard and the way it would be dealt with by a Court.
Yes 3% is high, mine were set at about 1.5% I think. If you get a couple of estate agents to confirm they will charge only 1.25% I reckon you have a good chance of arguing that costs of sale should not be more than 1.5- 2%.