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Notional costs of house sale not selling?

  • missguided
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05 Oct 12 #359461 by missguided
Topic started by missguided
Long story short, trying to agree finances.
2 houses, have sold FMH, but stbx wants 2nd house.
However when solicitor sent me figures they had deducted a notional 3% selling cost of the 2nd house, i questioned why this was as the house wasnt being sold (stbx to retain) and if he doesnt want house i have always said i do, so no sale needed.

Is this something that has to be included, i just really dont understand when not being sold.
Also the 3% is well over cost of actual sale (current estate agent 1.25% here) plus £800 conveyancing takes it to little over 1.5%.
So there is less money in the pot due to stbx keeping not selling?

Please advise as very confused
Miss x

  • dukey
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05 Oct 12 #359466 by dukey
Reply from dukey
Hello Miss

The notional cost of sale seems to be standard, for most this is a fairly small amount of money when considering the global position, in short the cost of arguing it would outweigh the potential gain.

  • maisymoos
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05 Oct 12 #359493 by maisymoos
Reply from maisymoos
I must admit the notional costs of sale annoyed and confused me too, it can seem very unfair if a property is not actually going to be sold. But this is standard and the way it would be dealt with by a Court.

Yes 3% is high, mine were set at about 1.5% I think. If you get a couple of estate agents to confirm they will charge only 1.25% I reckon you have a good chance of arguing that costs of sale should not be more than 1.5- 2%.

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