Hi - I''d be very grateful for advice. Currently, I have no entitlement to family home as unmarried and not joint owner. House is owned outright by my partner. I previously sold a property in belief we were going to get married and in order to buy larger property together. I have used some of that equity to build extension to family home. We also have smaller property jointly (small mortgage) which is rented out. Relationship rocky and now ending. Partner recently offered me option of buying family home from him at reduced price (he wants sufficient funds to buy a reasonable house for himself). However, I still have shortfall to meet mortgage needed. Partner recently agreed to put family home in joint names in return for sole ownership of 2nd property in order to give me a greater sense of security as this has seriously affected our relationship. However, relationship has further deteriorated and for sake of child + selves I think we need to separate. I wondered whether if we put house in joint names and mortgaged on basis of my salary (partner self-employed and cannot get mortgage), I could then use this to make up shortfall for partner''s asking price then transfer property to my name. Is this possible/legal/sensible???
Thanks for your help.