my partner is in the final stages of divorce from his wife and has been asked for a transfer deed. since the house is in his name solely not his wife''s, even though he is giving her the money for her 50/50 share in it, it is not in her name, so surely he doesn''t need a transfer deed does he? thanks in advance for any responses.
Who ever will "own" the house needs the deeds to be in their name.
Is this court directed?
Is she living there? Will she remain living there as her home after the divorce? Is she getting the house and 50% of it''s value (which seems very strange!)unless there are other assets that make this the judgement.