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  • aviary
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12 Apr 12 #323347 by aviary
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Can my wife use something that happened five years ago against me in a divorce ie.text messaging another woman of a sexual nature.We have been married five years and she has walked out and keeps bringing this up.There has been no contact since the incident five years ago with the person and there never was any physical contact.
Could someone please advise me on this.

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12 Apr 12 #323348 by rubytuesday
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Welcome to Wikivorce.

Any example of unreasonable behaviour needs to have occurred during the last 6 months or so of you having lived together as husband and wife. Anything that happened before is seen as having been condoned as you managed to continue with the marriage afterwards.

The situation you have described can''t be used as it happened so long ago.

Hope this helps :)

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12 Apr 12 #323353 by aviary
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Thank you so much that taking the time to reply has put my mind at rest and feel a bit happier

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12 Apr 12 #323354 by rubytuesday
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You''re welcome :)

Please post again if/when you have more questions.

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13 Apr 12 #323447 by cookie2
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aviary wrote:

Can my wife use something that happened five years ago against me in a divorce

Just to clear another point up, your wife can''t really use anything "against" you. The grounds for divorce are irrelevant to the financial negotiations. Even if you had 20 affairs in the last 6 months, she could mention them in a divorce petition, but it would not count "against" you.

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