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is this possible???

  • vampire80
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16 Jul 12 #343363 by vampire80
Topic started by vampire80
i have posted on here a few times about the same sort of issues, here i am again:( basicly, i have been married for 11 years, have three children 6,4, and 3, i do not work. our home is in my husbands name only and he was loaned some money by family for us to buy the house, this loan is being paid back each month and you can see this coming out on his bank statements, i do not know if there is a legal written agreement between them too. i am being given the impression by my husband that if it all does go wrong between us then he would have to sell the house straight away to pay this loan back and i would have to leave with the children and stay with my family - is this right? would i really be expected to do this? are the children and i not entitled to anything? i have no agreement with regards the house other than its our home and the children go to school nearby and its their home. any advice appreciated, thank you

  • sexysadie
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16 Jul 12 #343367 by sexysadie
Reply from sexysadie
You have marital home rights and you need to register these with the Land Registry immediately. I think it is fairly simple - ring them up and ask. This will prevent him from selling the house without your consent.

Loans from family can be treated as ''soft'' loans and in any case the house will be seen as marital property no matter whose name it is in. So it is possible that in the end it will have to be sold but you would get a share (probably the larger share if you''ve not been earning and have the children) in order to re-house - or maybe you would be able to stay in the house until the children are grown up.

Your husband is just trying to scare you. Ignore him and register your marital home rights today.

Best wishes,

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