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A well respected, award winning social enterprise
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We help 50,000 people a year through divorce
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Hi guys. I''d be grateful for anyone''s thoughts on the following. I have been divorced for a number of years. I left the uk a couple of years ago to take up an overseas job having been made redundant in the uk (couldn''t find work in the uk). As soon as I can get a job back in London I shall be returning as I''ve had enough of the separation from my kids. As my original financial settlement was set pre credit crunch I know that when I return my income will be a lot less than when we agreed maintenance and child support so I will be pursuing a downward variation (I have been maintaining the original agreement as my low tax overseas income meant I could afford to). As I will be cohabiting with my new partner when I return I recognize that the courts would take into account our combined income when appraising mine and my ex-wife''s needs. The question I have is would the courts delve into my new partners assets? For example, if I buy a home on my own with a large mortgage the repayments are obviously a financial need of mine. If, however, my new partner helped and we bought the house mortgage free then my fear is that as I have no mortgage my own financial needs are lowered which means I may end up paying more to the ex-wife. Thoughts on how this type of situation is interpreted?
We provide the UK's lowest cost no-fault divorce service, managed by a well respected firm of solicitors.
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