Hi,
I am the respondent in a (hopefully) amicable divorce and am trying to prepare a fair offer.
The main areas to split are the Home (which is being sold), the pensions (I have 5) and any alimony payments.
So, it's all about cash plus pensions. I'd like to get to a
Clean Break and pay all alimony up front if I can. I think this will become feasible as she will receive a pension plus any work income next year (giving her a greater disposable income than me, at least for as long as she works).
I have CETVs on all of my pensions. I am a deferred member in each and the valuations look sound for each one. We are looking at splitting the pensions (so she gets a value transferred into her own scheme)
However, my wife will be 60 this year. I am 52. We have been married for 30 years.
I have been considering the pension
CETV values to be the same value as cash from the house sale so far.
However, it occurs to me that the value to me of each pound in a pension plan is lower than it is for her (because she can draw down cash next year and/or start to claim a pension, while I have to wait).
"Cash now" is more valuable than "cash later", isn't it?
I don't want to overstate this, and I think it is fair that the settlement benefits her more than it does me (because I have higher earning power). I want a
fair settlement for her. At the same time, I don't want to sell myself short, either.
I am looking at the figures and thinking that it would be reasonable to assign a notional value to my "share" of the pensions at 90% of the full value, while her "share" remains at full value (as she can take it almost immediately).
Just to be clear, if she wants 50% of my pension, I am still offering a full 50%. She will also get over 50% of the asset value of the home. However, what this does is to represent the overall "value" of her share of the assets more highly in percentage terms.
If I then take the difference in "value" between her share of the pensions and mine (rather than the actuals), this is helpful in explaining how I have already given enough in terms of future alimony (when we include her share of the house, which is greater than 50%).
Anyway, that may be confusing (sorry!).
Let me give some numbers.
Value of all pensions:.350K
Split (both receive):..175K
Value of this to her:..175K
Value of this to me :..157.5K
In effect, she gets.:..17.5K more value
This 17.5K could be seen as a contribution to alimony.
My question is, is this reasonable? Is it reasonable to reduce the value of my share of my pensions by 10% (or at all) in these circumstances?
Thanks for any advice!