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stressed1
Posted by
Senior Member

24 Jul 12 #344959 by stressed1

Topic started by stressed1

I have an order which stipulates the following:

AND UPON it being recorded that it is the wife''s hope that she will be able to raise alump sum to be paid to the husband and to secure his release from the mortgage on xxxxx (property address) and that thereafter the property will be transferred into her sole name.

If the lump sum amount is not indicated and I offer a fair lump sum according to the current value of the property, could this be my means of keeping a roof over my head for my children and I?

Thanks

WYSPECIAL
Moderator

24 Jul 12 #344961 by WYSPECIAL

Reply from WYSPECIAL

Seems odd that no figure or % is mentioned. Is a specific date mentioned and what will happen if you can''t pay a lump sum?

The idea of these orders IS to keep a roof over the kids heads so I wouldn''t worry about that.

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Moderators: wikivorce team, rubytuesday, dukey, hadenoughnow, Tets, Shezi, Linda Sheridan, Forseti, Mitchum, WhiteRose, Lostboy67, WYSPECIAL, Bubblegum11