Thank you WYSPECIAL. From your reply, I understand that the court can order that the spouse who owns the home must transfer it into the joint name of both spouses. If the court chooses to, can it instead order that the spouse who owns the home must grant a charge to the other spouse?
The Court is unlikely to make an order that the title be transferred into both names as it serves no purpose. It is the beneficial entitlement which matters.
If a financial order is made - agreed or otherwise - that the absent party has an interest in the property it is possible to grant a legal Charge which could specify an amount or a percentage or a combination of these. The Charge has to be correct though and there are pitfalls if it's done incorrectly.