In reading other peoples blogs here I'm beginning to wonder if our financial settlement was unusual.
We owned our house outright.When he chose to leave , we split cars, savings etc right down the middle.Our pensions remain the right of its owner and should be worth roughly equal.I continue to pay our life insurances.If /when they pay out they will be split and saved for the children.
In order to let him buy a house I gave him( mortgaged the house) 1/3 of its value .He was happy enough to accept this.Now we both have mortgages of roughly the same amount.
We have two children under 16-He pays me £200pcm for their living expenses, clothes, etc...if I ask he'll give me someting towards clothes etc but I don't often ask.
I earn about 1/3 more than him.I don't really want any more because I manage .
However, I think he's starting to think he agreed to the house agreement in haste when in fact I was very accommodating in letting him move on and buy somewhere decent to live.
Am I way off the mark?????
I live in Scotland - the house is now solely in my name and we have a minute of agreement.